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State of CT Claims licensing info

What does imputed mean?

This is a form of liablity which says that even if you are not the person that committed the act, that you can still be held liable.

If your car is out of service at the mechanic and you are given a loaner car this would be considered what?
A) subsitute auto
B) non-owned auto
C) replacement auto

A) subsitute auto

True or false. A subsitute auto would be what a Connecticut auto policy would consider as a rental.

False. Non-owned Auto is considered for a rental.

Any Trailer that is owned by the insured is automatically covered during use, and the trailer did not have to be added to the policy. True or False

True

How many days does an insured have to request coverage if they were to add an auto to the policy and the insured already had an auto with NO physical damage coverage?

How many days does an insured have to request coverage if they were to add an auto to the policy and the insured already had an auto with physical damage coverage?

How many days does an insured have to request coverage if they were to replace an auto which had NO physical damage coverage?

How many days does an insured have to request coverage if they were to replace an auto which had physical damage coverage?

What is Name Non-Owner coverage

Coverage that protects the individual for liablity while driving a vehicle even though they do not own a vehicle.
(ie: lives in a big city, rents a car on weekends alot)

Optional limits transportation expense coverage can also be known as what?

Rental reimbursement coverage

Miscellaneous Type Vehicles endorsement section of the auto policy would do what?

Allow you to add additional vehicles that can be used for hwy and recreatonal activities such as a moped, atv, dune buggy,snow mobiles, motor homes, golf carts.

Towing and labor costs under a Connecticut auto policy would pay what amount each time the the vehicle was disabled?

$25.00

If you borrow someone's car and you are involved in an accident, whose policy the owners or yours would be looked at first to pay out? Note: both policies have Comp and Col.

your insurance policy would pay out using your Comp and Collision.

Under the Connecticut auto policy, how much will the transportation charges pay per day and up to what amount?

20 600

What is the waiting period for a rental car if the car was stolen?

48 Hours

What is the waiting period for a rental car for any other reason if the car was NOT stolen ?

24 hours

Which coverage would pay a claim to an inusured if the driver of the other vehicle did not have the state minimums to pay for your claim?

Underinsured motorists coverage. UIM

Which coverage would pay a claim to an inusured if the driver of the other vehicle has no inusurance?

Uninsured Motorist coverage (UM or UMBI)

If you lived in your car and were injured, would medical payments coveage pay for your injuries?

if you were legally racing in an organized race track with your vehicle and were injured, would Medical Payments pay for your injuries?

No.

If you were injured and have medical payments coverage while driving a golf cart, would medical payments pay out?

Yes

How many years do you have to file a medical claim?
a) up to 2 years
b) up to 2 years of the date of the accident
c) up to 3 years
d) up to 3 years of the date of the accident

d) up to 3 years of the date of the accident

If you are not at fault this would have a bearing on if medical payments would pay out? True or False

False. Medical payments will pay out regardless of fault

What do medical payments cover?

Medical bill, Dental bills, Funeral expenses.

who will medical payments coverage pay for medical expenses for if they are a pedestrian?

Named Insured and family members

who does medical payments cover provide protection to?

Named insured, family members, or anyone in the vehicle as a passenger.

what are the Medical payment limits one can choose to have?

1, 2 , 5, & 10 thousand dollars

If the insured is advised to mail in a document to them or get a new suit at a reasonable expense for a court date, what kind of payment would this be?

Supplementary

Loss of earnings is what kind of payment, and how much per day will it pay at the insurers request?

Supplementary, $200.00

Bail bonds are what kind of payment? and how much will they pay?

Supplementary, $250.00

If you are running an errand for your employer ABC company and driving your own car, and get into an accident. Would it be your employers insurance or your insurance that would cover and pay for the accident up to the policy limits?

Your policy

If you drive into a state where the minimum limits required are higher than your states minimum which is what your policy has. What will happen?

Your coverage will automatically be raised to the higher limits

What is required to get a Connecticut auto policy that requires each driver to prove that they can pay BI or PD losses arrising out of an automobile accident?

Financial Responsibility Laws

Damage to, destruction of or loss of use of tangible property describles what?
a) Collision
b) Other than Collision
c) Property Damage

Property Damage

Getting in a vehicl, upon a vehicle, getting in or out of a vehicle or getting off a vehicle describles what?

Occupying a vehicle

which of the following best describes Bodiliy injury.
a) Injury to your body
b) Bodily harm, sickness, and death
c) Injury to the insured

b) Bodily harm, sickness, and death

You and yours in a Connecticut auto policy refers to what?
a) You (named insured) and your family
b) you (named insured) and your belongings
c) You (named insured) and your residing spouse
d) You (named insured) and your passengers

c) Refers to the Named insued and thier residing spouse.

(a) A stop; an obstruction or bar to one's alleging or denying a fact contrary to his own previous action, allegation, or denial; an admission, by words or conduct, which induces another to purchase rights, against which the party making such admission can not take a position inconsistent with the admission. (b) The agency by which the law excludes evidence to dispute certain admissions, which the policy of the law treats as indisputable.

ESTOPEL

: an estoppel that prevents a promisor from denying the existence of a promise when the promisee reasonably and foreseeably relies on the promise and to his or her loss acts or fails to act and suffers an injustice that can only be avoided by enforcement of the promise
a) promissory estoppel
b) file wrap·per estoppel
c) estoppel by deed
d) estoppel in pais

a) promissory estoppel

a bar or impediment preventing a party from asserting a fact or a claim inconsistent with a position that party previously took, either by conduct or words, esp. where a representation has been relied or acted upon by others.
a) waiver
b) aleatory
c) adheasion
d) estoppel

d) estoppel

1. an intentional relinquishment of some right, interest, or the like.
2. an express or written statement of such relinquishment.
This is known as what

Waiver

The substitution of one person for another, especially the legal doctrine of substituting one creditor for another.
This is known as what

subrogation

1. to put into the place of another; substitute for another.
2. Civil Law. to substitute (one person) for another with reference to a claim or right.
this is known as what?

subrogation

a stipulation in an agreement or instrument transferring property that provides for a change consequent on the occurrence or nonoccurrence of a stated event.
Or the event upon which this stipulation depends. is known as what?
a) Insuring Agreement
b) Conditions
c) Declartions
d) Endorsement/rider

b) Conditions

Definitions and descriptions of of coverage can be found on which part of the contract.
a) Insuring Agreement
b) Conditions
c) Declartions
d) Endorsement/rider

a) Insuring Agreement

The portion or section of an insurance policy that details what is covered by the contract for causes of loss or perils, subject to other provisions such as exclusions, limitations and conditions.
a) Insuring Agreement
b) Conditions
c) Declartions
d) Endorsement/rider

a) Insuring Agreement

on an insurance policy, which part would advise Who, What, Where, When, and How?
a) Insuring Agreement
b) Conditions
c) Declartions
d) Endorsement/rider

c) Declartions

The section of a property and casualty insurance contract containing such information as the name, description, and location of insured property; the name and address of the insured; the period for which the policy is in force; premiums payable; and the amount of coverage.
a) conditions
b) declarations page
c) exclusiions
d) Insuring agreement

b) declarations page

a. pertaining to a contract that can be formed only when the party to whom an offer is made renders the performance for which the offeror bargains.
b. pertaining to a contract in which obligation rests on only one party, as a binding promise to make a gift.
This is known as what?
a) adheasion
b) aleatory
c) utmost good faith
d) unilateral

d) unilateral

a wrongful act, not including a breach of contract or trust, that results in injury to another's person, property, reputation, or the like, and for which the injured party is entitled to compensation.
a) negligence
b) tort
c) tort feasor
d) tort law

tort

Damage, injury, or a wrongful act done willfully, negligently, or in circumstances involving strict liability, but not involving breach of contract, for which a civil suit can be brought.
a) negligence
b) tort
c) tort feasor
d) tort law

tort

A clause in an insurance policy that exempts the insurer from paying an initial specified amount in the event that the insured sustains a loss.

deductible

A contractual means of transfering the risk of loss to an entity that pools similar exposures.
a) Insurance contract
b) insured contract
c) warrenty
d) contract of representation

b) insured contract

Suppression of such facts and circumstances as in justice ought to be made known
a) concealment
b) misreprsentation
c) representation
d) warrenty

a) concealment

a statement of facts, reasons, etc., made in appealing or protesting; a protest or remonstrance.
a) concealment
b) misreprsentation
c) representation
d) warrenty

c) representation

something that takes place; especially : an accident, event, or continuing condition that causes personal or property damage that is unintended or unexpected from the standpoint of an insured party making a claim
is known as a what?

Occurance

__________ in tort is the concept that in certain situations a defendant is liable for plaintiff's damages without any requirement that the plaintiff prove that the defendant was negligent.
a) contractual liablity
b) vicarious liability
c) strict / absolute liabilty
d) tort liability

c) Strict liability

behavior by the plaintiff that contributes to the harm resulting from the defendant's negligence; "in common law any degree of __________ negligence would bar the plaintiff from collecting damages"
a) comparitive
b) contributory
c) assumption of risk
d) statute of limitations

b) contributory

negligence on the part of an injured party that combines with the negligence of another in causing the injury, sometimes so as to diminish or bar the recovery of damages for the injury.
a) comparitive
b) contributory
c) assumption of risk
d) statute of limitations

b) contributory

pertaining to or involving a civil action for compensation for damages filed by a person who claims to have suffered an injury or loss in an accident caused by another's wrong doing, is known as what?
a) Tort Feasor
b) Tort
c) Negligence Per Se
d) Negligence

Negligence

the failure to exercise that degree of care that, in the circumstances, the law requires for the protection of other persons or those interests of other persons that may be injuriously affected by the want of such care. is known as what

Negligence

If Person "A" is blamed and Person "B" is also accused of some negligence. This is known as what?
1) Comparitive Negligence
2) Contributory Negligence
3) Assumption of risk
4) Statue of Limitations

1) Comparitive Negligence

negligence allocated between the plaintiff and the defendant with a corresponding reduction in damages paid to the plaintiff is known as what?
1) Comparitive Negligence
2) Contributory Negligence
3) Assumption of risk
4) Statue of Limitations

1) Comparitive Negligence

Using contribution by equal shares:
There is a loss of 24,000
Company A has a limit of 5m
Company B has a limit of 25M
How much will each company pay?

a) Company A pays 5m and Company B pays 5m
b) Company A pays 5m and company B pays 5m then an addl 14 m to make up the difference.
c) Company A pays 5m Company B pays nothing

b) Company A pays 5m and company B pays 5m then an addl 14 m to make up the difference.

An insurance policy is written on a contingency basis for loss. It is based on an uncertain event. Premiums are always paid, but if there is no loss, the insurance company pays nothing.
a) Aleatory
b) Adhesion
c) Unilateral

A) Aleatory

Because insurance contracts are unilateral, any ambiguity in the language will be interpreted in favor of the policy holder because of reasonable expectations.
A) Aleatory
B) Adhesion
C) Liberalizatin

B) Adhesion

Insurer cannot give higher or lower rates to 1 or 2 identical individuals, Insurers cannot accept bribes from a client in return for lower premiums.
A) Misrepresentaion
B) Unfair Discrimiation
C) Rebating

B) Unfair discrimination

A person who has special relationship of trust to another person.
A) Misreprsentation
B) Contract
C) Fiduciary

C) Fiduciary

A form of misrepresenting where an agent convnces an applicant to cancel thier exsisting policy and start a new one with the agent and it does not benifit the applicant.
A) REBATING
B) TWISTING
C) FIDUCIARY

B) TWISTING

Giving or offering a benifit to an applicant in return for the applicants purchasing a policy. (gifts, money)
A) twisting
B) rebating
C) misrepresentation

B) Rebating

The type of company which is owned by stockholders or shareholders. They share in the profits and losses of the company
A) STOCK
B) MUTUAL
c) RECIPROCAL

Stock

The type of company which is owned by its policyholders, they share in the profits and have the right to vote on company elections
A) STOCK
B) RECIPRCAL
C) MUTUAL

mutual

The company which members share in each others losses and are managed by an Attorney in Fact which is responsible for company business.
A) RECIPROCAL
B) MUTUAL
C) RESIDUAL MARKETING SYSTEM

Reciprocal

A group of individuals who insure unique interest with their own money.
A) MUTUAL
B) LLOYDS ASSOCIATION
C) RESIDUAL MARKETING SYSTEM

Lloyds Association

State funded insurance; federal government provides coverage for flood, war, nuclear, and crops, not normally available from private insurers
A) RECPRICAL
B) LLOYDS ASSOCIATION
C) RESIDUAL MARKETING SYSTEM

Residual Marketing System

The Commissioner of Insurance may issue a notice of hearing to a person engaging in unfair acts. The notice of hearing will list the charges against the licensee and the hearing will not be less than _____ days after the serving of notice.

A) 15
B) 30
C) 60

Fines for hearings are not more than $_____ for each violation and will not exceed the aggregate of $______.
A) 500 , 5000.00
B) 500, 7500
C) 1000, 10,000

1000.00 10,000.00

If a violator knowingly caused this act knowing he broke the law, the fine will be not more than $_______ and will not exceed the aggregate of $________

A) 500, 5000
B) 1000, 7500
C) 5000, 50,000

C) 5000.00 50,000.00

Any person or corporation violating the provisions of CT insurance law for which no other penalty is provided will be fined no more than $______
A) 1000.00
B) 5000.00
C) 7500.00

C)7500.00

After a hearing the Commissioner of Insurance may issue a cease and desist order if it is determined that the person is guilty. Violation of the cease and desist order is punishable by a fine of not more than $_____
A) 1000.00
B) 5000.00
C) 10,000.00

10,000.00

An insurance company that meets the insurance department standards and is authorized to do business in the state

A) DOMESTIC INSURER
B) ADMITTED/AUTHORIZED
C) APPROVED INSURER

B) Admitted / Authorized

An Insurance company not authorized to do business in the state.
A) FORIEGN INSURER
B) NON ADMITTED/ UNAUTHORIZED
C) ALIEN INSURER

B) Non admitted / Unauthorized

The CT producer license renewal fee is every ___ years at a fee of $____

A) 2, 75.00
B) 2, 80.00
C) 2, 150.00

B) 2 80.00

The COI may in addition to a place of suspension or revocation, impose a fine not to exceed $______

A) 500.00
B) 1000.00
C) 5000.00

1000.00

If a licensee after having a license suspended or revoked performs business with an unauthorized company or negotiating contracts are subject to a fine up to $_____ imprisonment for ___ months or both. Any subsequent offense is subject to a fine up to $______

A) 1000, 6, 10,000.00
B) 500, 6, 1000
C) 1000, , 6, 7500.00

B) 500.00 6 1000.00

Notice of cancellation by the insurer for non payment must be sent ___ days prior to cancellation.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 30

Notice of Cancellation for any other reason other than non payment will have to send notice ___ days prior to cancellation.

A) 15
B) 30
C) 60

When the insured cancels their policy they are refunded the unearned premiums on a ____ ____ basis.
A) PRO RATE
B) PRO RATA
C) SHORT RATE

short rate

A policy form used when the amount of insurance coverage does not change although the actual value of the property may fluctuate is known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Non reporting

The chance of loss Without the Chance of Gain is known as a ______

A) RISK
B) PURE RISK
C) PERIL

B) Pure risk

A financial loss that exsist at the time of the loss is known as

a) physical hazard
b) insurable interest
c) liability

Insurable Interest

To have insurable interest you must have
a) an active policy
b) ownership/possession
c) both a and c

c) Active Policy Ownership/possession

A condition bound by law or contract to meet an obligation is known as _______
a) indemnity
b) insurable interest
c) liability

Liability

The lack of reasonable care that is required to protect others from the chance of harm is known as ______

a) negligence
b) liable
c) feduciary

Negligence

The following are the four factors to determine what? Legal duty owed
Breach of Legal duty owed
Proximate cause- the wrongful act that caused the accident
Damages

a) negligence
b) complaint handling
c) negligence per se

Negligence

When the injured party knew the risk but still took the chance, this is known as
a) pure risk
b) assumption of risk
c) speculative risk

Assumption of Risk

When the accused is held accountable regardless of negligence (ie: blasting, digging tunnels) is known as what type of liability?
a) vicarious
b) strict
c) negligence per se

Strict

When liability assumed under contract. you sign a contract that makes your responsible for something you normally would not be accountable for. (ie: lease agreement)
a) insuring agreement
b) contractual
c) legal action

Contractual

A wrongful act for which damages can be sought by the injured party is known as
a) tort
b) tort feasor
c) liability loss

Tort

When there are misunderstandings in the language, the policy is written in the favor of the policyholder.
a) adhesion
b) aleatory
c) liberalization

Adhesion

An insurance policy has a number of rules that both parties must abide by is known as
a) conditional
b) insuring agreement
c) adhesion

Conditional

An insurance policy written on the contingency basis for loss for an uncertain event. All premiums will be paid if there is no loss and will only pay if there is a loss to justify payment (ie: collision loss)
a) aleatory
b) adhesion
c) unilateral

Aleatory

When payment is limited to the financial loss, no one can profit from insurance. and the policyholder is put back into the same condition prior to the loss is.
a) Indemnity
b) aleatory
c) unilateral

Indemnity

This covers the person who owns the property not the property itself is known as a _________ contract
a) commericial
b) personal
c) special

Personal

when all parties must disclose all material information and facts

a)Acknowledgement of loss
b)Utmost Good Faith
c)Aleatory

Utmost good faith

The page of the insurance contact which has basic information such as names, addresses, limits, premiums, underwriting info, policy period, and deductibles.
A) Declarations page
B) Conditions
C) Insuring agreement

Declarations page

This part of the policy will describe the perils covered and the type of property covered. it describes the covered losses for which the insured will be indemnified. also has descriptions of coverages and definitions.
a) Conditions
b) Declarations Page
c) Insuring agreement

Insuring agreement

This part of the insurance contract contains the rights and obligations of both parties, also listed are the ground rules, duties, and procedures along with how the policy reacts to losses.
a) insuring agreement
b) conditions
c) declarations page

conditions

Proof of loss must be submitted within ___ days.
a) 15
b) 30
c) 60

When a person and insurance company cannot settle on the amount of that should be paid for the loss is known as
a) arbitration
b) appraisal condition
c) mediation

Appraisal Condition

When more than one company covers a loss and the policies pay together is known as ____ ____
a) pro rate
b) pro rata
c) short rate

Pro Rata

Supplemental payments will pay for the cost of _______ on judgments as well as defense costs, expense incurred during investigation, first aid to others, expenses incurred at the insurance companies request (postage etc.), loss of earnings,
a) bail bonds
b) pre and post judgment interest
c) both a and b

both a and b

An insurer will reply in ____ days to all written communications from someone presenting a claim.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 30

a) 10

Once a claim has been presented the insurer has how many days to acknowledge the loss
a) 10
b) 15
c) 30

a) 10

If the claim is open for 45 days from the notice date, then a 2nd delay letter must be filed and followed up with every how many days.
a) 10
b) 30
c) 45

c) 45

Once the insurer receives the proof of loss, they have how many days to accept of deny the claim in writing.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 30

b) 15

If the policy holder is making an UM claim, the insurance company has how many days to be in contact with the insured.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 30

b) 15

After an insurer makes a decision, they have how long to make a payment?

a) 10 days
b) 30 days
c) 60 days

b) 30 days

the statute of limitations in the state of CT is how long?
A) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) no time limit

b) 2 years

CT Binder is good for how many days

a) 10
b) 30
c) 60

c) 60

true or false CT is a prior approval state

TRUE

Constructive Total loss is what

a) the cost to repair or to salvage property
b) the cost to repair or to salvage property that is equal or greater than the appraisal by the umpire.
c)the cost to repair or to salvage property to be equal or greater than the value of the property.

c)the cost to repair or to salvage property to be equal or greater than the value of the property.

The CT adjuster license renews on what date and what type of years.
a) 6/30 odd years
b) 7/01 odd years
c) 07/01 even years

b) 7/01 odd years

A Ct adjusters license renews every ___ years

a) 1
b) 4
c) 2

c) 2

Submit a written application, Be deemed honest and trustworthy, be financially responsible, pass the written exam, be 18 years of age, and complete 40 hours of training are requirements to do what

Obtain a license in the state of CT

additional damages over compensatory damages which punish gross negligence or recklessness. Insurance will not cover is known as
a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

E) Punitive Damages

Pays for pain and suffering, disfigurement, impairment, mental anguish, loss of consortioum is known as

a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

b) General Damages

The pays for actual economic losses, medical expenses, lost wages, funeral expenses, cost to replace property up to policy limits is known as

a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

F) Special Damages

Compensation (money) that is paid out to indemnify the injured party is known as

a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

a) compensatory damages

Slander / liable is known as

a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

D) Personal injury

To use responsible care to protect others from harm

a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

Negligence failure

When a document has a signature that is required before continuing with the investigation and lets the person know that we may not be covering the loss is known as
a) compensatory damages b) General Damages B) negligence failure C) non waiver agreement D) Personal Injury
E) Punitive Damages F) Special Damages

c) non waiver agreement

Exited Utterances - the declaration or exclamation made spontaneously during or immediately following an even that serves to establish the facts of the event, and is admissable in court is known as.
a) Res ipsa loquitur
b) Res Gestae
c) Respondeat Superior

b) Res Gestae

The person who make the statement is not subject to cross examination by the opposing parties attorney is a reason for excluding

Hearsay

The statement was not made under oath and therefore is less likely to be truthful is an reason to exclude this

hearsay

If the jury does not have the opportunity to judge the demeanor of the person who made the statement to determine his or her credibility would be a reason to exclude

hearsay

"The thing that speaks for itself" I don't have concrete evidence but all the facts are pointing in the same direction.
A) Res Ipsa Loquitur
B) Respondeat Superior

A) Res Ipsa Loquitur

A legal Concept which means " Master Answer" used when referring to vicarious liability.
A) Res Ipsa Loquitur
B) Respondeat Superior

B) Respondeat Superior

Anything that the handler would include such as photos, diagrams etc.

A) Documentary B) Material C) Physical
D) Testimonial

Physical

Anything that the handler has determined to prove as evidence to disprove something about the case.

A) Documentary B) Material C) Physical
D) Testimonial

B) Material

Anything that the handler literally recorded such as an interview to the file regarding the claim is

A) Documentary B) Material C) Physical
D) Testimonial

D) testimonial

Anything that the handler has documented to the file regarding the claim is

A) Documentary B) Material C) Physical
D) Testimonial

A) Documentary

A person who may be openly biased against the insured is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting
g) unfriendly

d) hostile

A person whose testimony does not support the insureds side is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting
g) unfriendly

a) adverse

A person whose testimony is favorable to the insured is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting
g) unfriendly

f) supporting

A person who does not cooperate is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting
g) unfriendly

g) unfriendly

A person who cooperates with the investigator is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting g) unfriendly

c) friendly

A person who has some knowledge of the facts that are relevant to the investigation is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting g) unfriendly

e) non expert

A person who specializes in the field of the question but did not actually witness the accident is what kind of witness?

a) adverse b) expert c) friendly
d) hostile e) non expert f) supporting g) unfriendly

b expert

investigation, evaluation, and disposition are the primary functions of doing what?

a) arbitration
b) claims handling
c) obtaining an umpire

B) Claims handling

How many days does an insurer have to provide the forms to file a claim

a) 10
b) 15
c) 30

b) 15

the organization that is a model for unfair claims settlement practices act is known as

A) NAIC
B) NCIA
C) NICA

A ) NAIC

A Claim handler not employed directly by the insurance company is called a _____ handler

Public Staff

Public

A Claim handler employed directly by the insurance company is called a _____ handler

Public Staff

Staff

If any establishment who sells alcoholic beverages to intoxicated persons who subsequently gets into an accident the last establishment that served them alcohol would be subject to the ____ shop liability

Dram

After 60 days or more in the state of CT the insurance company can only cancel a policy if there is for_______ ______ or if the operators license has been _____ or _____

Non payment revoked or suspended

After a policy has been in effect for ___ days or more in the state of CT it may be canceled.

1 , 2 , 5 , or 10 thousand dollars per person regardless of fault would be optional limits pertaining to what coverage in the state of CT

Medical Payments

Medical payments coverage is optional in the state of Ct true or false

True

Supplemental payments will pay reasonable expenses at the _____ request. for items such as postage, mileage etc.

Insureds

Supplemental payments will pay for the cost of ____ bonds

bail

Supplemental payments will pay up to ____ per day for a loss of earnings due to court appearance.

200.00

What are the minimum Coverage limits in the state of CT

A) 20/50/25
B) 20/40/10
C) 25/40/10

This is the term defined as: Creates the impression that a certain fact does exsist when it does not.

Estoppel

This is the term which means the intentional relinquishment of a known right.

Waiver

This is the term that means to transfer of your legal right to recovery.

Subrogation

Under Contribution by equal shares if there is a loss of 25000.00 and company A has a limit of 10,000 and company B has a limit of 25000.00 what would each company pay.

A 10,000 B 10,000 then 5,000.00

Contribution by equal shares is when

Two companies insure the same property

Even after an umpire is brought into a dispute, the insurance company reserves the right to _____ the claim

deny

When an umpire makes a decision for an appraisal dispute,it is the ____ final decision.

final

The cost of an Umpire is ____ between both the insured and the insurance company

split

When both the insurer and the insureds own appraisers cannot come up with the decision the two parties will select an _____ if the two parties cannot select this person the courts will appoint one.

Umpire

If the insurer and the insured do not agree on the appraisal condition, they can select and pay for their own _______

appraiser

Notice of loss can be verbal or in writing.
T or F

The following are what type of payments?
defense costs
expenses incurred in the investigation of claim
cost of bonds, bail bonds, release of attachment of bonds, appeal bonds.
First aid to others
Expenses incurred at the insurance companies request.
Loss of earnings
Pre and post judgment interest

Supplementary

the page of the insurance policy that shows additions or changes to the policy.

Endorsements

This part of the insurance contract that deletes coverage. some of these include war, nuclear, wear and tear, moral hazards

Exclusions

When there is any change that will benefit new policyholders at no extra cost will automatically be applied to current policies.

Liberalization

Somebody who commits a wrongful act or tort is know as a

Tort Feasor

When one party is responsible for the liability of others is known as what kind of liability?

Vicarious

When you blame he victim and the accused party pays no damages is known as _____ negligence.

Contributory

When both parties are negligent for a certain percentage is known as.

Comparitive

When a party violates the law and as a result someone is injured thus making the lawbreaker automatically guilty is known as

Negligence Per Se

The replacement cost of an item minus depreciation is known as ____ ____ _____

Actual Cash Value (ACV)

A payment of money for a loss, or to bring back to the original prior to the loss is known as _____

Indemnity

The type of hazard which is a preconcieved or fraudulent hazard caused by the dishonesty of the insured.

Moral, Morale, Physical

Moral

The type of hazard which an increase in the chance of loss either through the carelessness of others, poor attitude, or irresponsibility of the insured and or their actions.

Moral, Morale, Physical

Morale

The type of hazard caused by material structural or operational condition ( you can detect with your senses)

Moral, Morale, Physical

Physical

When there is a situation where one party assumes the risk of another.

Transfer

When one pays for a loss or part of a loss out of pocket is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Retain

When one does not participate in a risk related activity is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Avoid

When one does not stop the loss from happening but can maintain the severity of the damage is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Control

The chance of loss With the chance of gain is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

speculative risk

The chance of uncertainty is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Risk

Any financial loss resulting from a direct loss is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Indirect loss

The physical loss resulting directly from a peril is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Direct loss

The cause of loss is known as a ______

Avoid, Control, Direct Loss, Indirect loss, Peril, Retain, Speculative risk, transfer

Peril

A policy form used by large commercial risks as well as homeowner risks is known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Schedule

A policy form which provides increased coverage for a specific period is known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Peak season

A policy form written with reporting requirements for changing values is known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Automatic/reporting form

A policy form which provides coverage in different locations when it is difficult to furnish an accurate location description ( traveling jazz band equipment) known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Floater

A policy form which provides a single amount of coverage of insurance protection, the same kind of property at a different location is known as a ____ form.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

Blanket

A policy form which provides coverage primarily for one kind of property, in one definite location is known as a ____ policy.

automatic or reporting, blanket, floater, non reporting form, peak season form, schedule form, specific form

specific

If an insured has selected not to have the insurance company share their info they have the right on an annual basis to ___ ___ and would be advised how to do so.

opt out

If both the insurance company and the insured decide not to go through with the policy on the day it is written, this would be called a ___ ____.

flat cancellation

If an Insurance company cancels a policy, the company keeps the unearned premium. This is collected under the ___ ___ basis.

Pro Rata

If the insurer does not renew a policy they must send a notice to the insured within ___ days of policy expiration.

When the insured cancels they have the right to cancel _____

anytime

Someone who deliberately lies, with the intent of the lie to have someone else rely on the lie and have any other persons suffer harm from this lie is also known as _____ and is grounds to cancel a policy.

Fraud

Withholding of information is also known as _______ and can be grounds to cancel a policy.

Concealment

A written or verbal mis-statement of a material fact is known as ________ and can be grounds to cancel a policy.

misrepresentation

An insurance company can cancel a policy if there is known _______

misrepresentation

A temporary license is good for ___ days.

180

Adjusters license expire on June __ of ___ numbered years

30 Odd

Producer license renewals are mailed approximately ___ days prior to your license expiration.

Producer license expire on the _____ date of the licensee.

birth

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is failure to pay state income tax.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is failure to comply with administrative or court order imposing child support obligation.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if one knowingly accepting insurance business from an individual who is not licensed.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license when there improperly using notes for any other reference material to complete any examination for an insurance license.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is any other insurance license or equivalent denied/suspended by any other state.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license has been considered dishonest or demonstrating incompetence.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is fraud.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if the licensee have been convicted of a felony.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is intentional misrepresentation of the terms.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is Co-mingling of funds.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is a violation of any insurance law.

T or F The Commissioner of Insurance may place on probation, suspend or revoke, refuse to issue or renew any producer license if there is any misrepresentation on the application.

The licensee may appeal any Commissioner action against them in court. T or F

The COI may, after reasonable notice for cause and after a hearing, suspend or revoke a license. T or F

If you have any administrative action against you from in another state you must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

If you are convicted of any felony you must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

If you have any Bankruptcy you must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

if you change your Licensed memebers of a firm, must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

if you change your name must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

if you change your employer must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

if you change your name you must notify the COI within 30 days. T or F

Any entity holding a license must notify the commissioner of insurance within ____ days of the change of: Business or residence address, change of employer, change of name, change in licensed members of a firm. any bankruptcy proceedings, convictions of a felony or any administrative action from any other state.

The application filing fee for a producers license in CT is $_______

75.00

To hold a CT adjuster license the applicant must submit application in _____ to the _____

writing Commissioner of Insurance

An insurance company organized or incorporated outside the US. but can also do business within the US.

Alien

An insurance company organized or incorporated out of its home state but still within the US. They can sell insurance in states other than the state which it was incorporated and can also do business within its home state

Foreign

An insurance company who both sells insurance and was organized or incorporated in its home state.

Domestic

This agent does not include persons acting as an executive office or traveling salaried employees of an insurance company acting on behalf of a company.

Agent

This agent represents only one company.

Exclusive/Captive

This agent can represent more than one company when dealing with insurance and works by themselves.

Independent agent

This person is a licensed and holds a written appointment (contract) with an insurance company.

Insurance Agent

A person required to be licensed under CT law to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance.

Producer

The Commissioner of Insurance may ______ or _______ the license and order restitution.

Suspend Revoke

The person that has general duties include the following: issuing licenses, setting reserves for domestic companies, appointing examiners, issue fines and cease and desist orders, conduct hearings, regulate insurer solvency and premium rates are done by who?

The commissioner of Insurance

This persons primary duty is to see that the insurance laws are properly executed and the public interest is protected by the enforcing of these laws.

The Commissioner of Insurance

The title given to the official in charge of controlling the state insurance department.

Commissioner of Insurance

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